If an exposure reduces the risk of an adverse event, which statement is accurate?

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Multiple Choice

If an exposure reduces the risk of an adverse event, which statement is accurate?

Explanation:
When an exposure reduces risk, the incidence of the adverse event is lower in the exposed group than in the unexposed group. In relative risk terms, the risk in the exposed divided by the risk in the unexposed is less than 1, which signals a protective effect. So the statement that exposed have lower risk is accurate. For example, if exposed risk is 2% and unexposed risk is 4%, the RR is 0.5, meaning the exposed have half the risk. The other options would imply no reduction (RR = 1), increased risk (RR > 1), or an uninterpretable measure, which isn’t how RR works in cohort studies.

When an exposure reduces risk, the incidence of the adverse event is lower in the exposed group than in the unexposed group. In relative risk terms, the risk in the exposed divided by the risk in the unexposed is less than 1, which signals a protective effect. So the statement that exposed have lower risk is accurate. For example, if exposed risk is 2% and unexposed risk is 4%, the RR is 0.5, meaning the exposed have half the risk. The other options would imply no reduction (RR = 1), increased risk (RR > 1), or an uninterpretable measure, which isn’t how RR works in cohort studies.

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